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Sep 14, 2012 at 15:26 history edited Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0
Fixed typo
Sep 14, 2012 at 14:33 vote accept Paul Graaf
Sep 14, 2012 at 12:41 history edited Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 14, 2012 at 12:22 history edited Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 14, 2012 at 11:33 comment added Karl Schwede Definitely you can't do the trick I did above. There is never a splitting of $O_X \to O_{\widetilde{X}}$ and the trace is worthless. Let me think about normality briefly and then edit my answer.
Sep 14, 2012 at 4:29 comment added Paul Graaf @Karl Scwede: Thanks for the answer. I see that the map in question need not be surjective. I had the normalization map $\bar{X} \to X$ in mind. Can we achieve injectivity if $X$ is not normal? Can the trace map be defined in non-normal situations?
Sep 12, 2012 at 18:22 comment added Karl Schwede Indeed you are right.
Sep 12, 2012 at 17:08 comment added Will Sawin Using the flat base change theorem, we can formalize your "I don't think one should expect that $H^n(X,\mathcal O_X) \to H^n(Y,\mathcal O_Y)$. Because $\mathbb C$ is flat over $\mathbb R$, $Y\to X$ is flat base change, so $H^n(Y,\mathcal O_Y)=H^n(X,\matcal O_X) \otimes_{\mathbb R} \mathbb C$, and the map between them is the obvious one. It is indeed never surjective when $H^n(X,\mathcal O_X)\neq 0$.
Sep 12, 2012 at 16:57 history edited Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 12, 2012 at 16:34 history answered Karl Schwede CC BY-SA 3.0