Harpo Marx providedI heard a great answer to this question based on the Thue equation.
I investigated the Thue equation and while User 631's argumentthere was one point that was not completeclear to me. It seems to me that there are an infinite number of values that $a$ and $b$ can take. If there are an infinite number of combinations of finite solutions, then there is an infinite number of solutions. Right?
So, if I understand it does appear possible, the Thue equation alone doesn't seem to make it completework. I am very glad to be correctedapologize if I have make a mistake in my reasoningam misunderstanding the classical result there.
Here's thean argument that seems to work as far as I understand it:
(1) For any prime $p$, there is a finite number of combinations of primes that are less than $p$.
(2) For any of these combinations there exists an integer $x$ such that if a combination is greater than $x$, then at least one of the primes that make up the combination are of a degree greater than $2$.
(3) Let $c$ be either the highest of the values $x$ from step (2) or $4p^{4}(3\prod_{p} p^{\frac{1}{2}})^3$ depending on which is higher.
(4) There is a finite number of ways that we can pair these different combinations so that we have an equation of the form $ax^3 - by^3 = c$ where $c < p$.
(5) If $a \ne b$ and $gcd(x,y)=1$, then using a result from Siegel, there is at most $1$ solution (see Theorem A in the link below).
http://matwbn.icm.edu.pl/ksiazki/aa/aa75/aa7538.pdf
(6) if $a = b$ and $a = c$, then using a result from Michael Bennett, there is at most $1$ solution. Here's the reference:
M. A. Bennett, Rational approximation to algebraic numbers of small height : the Diophantine equation $|ax^n-by^n|=1$}, J. Reine Angew. Math. 535 (2001), 1-49
http://www.math.ubc.ca/~bennett/B-Crelle2.pdf
(7) if $a = b$ and $a < c$, then the equation has a form such as:
$x^3 - y^3 = \frac{c}{a}$
This is a Thue Equation and we can conclude that there is a finite number of solutions.
(8) if $a \ne b$ and $gcd(x,y) > 1$, then it means that both combinations consist of the same prime so we have an equation of the form:
$x^m - x^n = c$
Then, as I understand it, we have a Thue equation so we can again assume that there is a finite number solutions.
I believe that covers all the possible cases.
Since, there are only a finite number of solutions, it follows that there exists an integer $c$ which is greater than all of these solutions and for all $x \ge c$, we have at most $1$ integer in the sequence where $gpc(x+i) \le p$.
Apologies for the length of this argument. I'm sure a professional mathematician such as user 631 would be able to state the argument more elegantly. :-)