Timeline for Generalizations of Oppenheim's inequality
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
3 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Feb 6, 2013 at 20:27 | comment | added | Betrand | This would be a big conjecture. I don't know the answer. Would you post it as a new problem. | |
| Feb 5, 2013 at 23:14 | comment | added | Denis Serre | After this inequality, and that of Fallat & Johnson (see my answer below), could it be that for every immanent $I$ and every positive definite symmetric matrices $A,B$, we have $$I(A\circ B)+I(A)I(B)\ge(\prod a_{ii})I(B)+(\prod b_{ii})I(A)\qquad ?$$ | |
| Sep 6, 2012 at 1:16 | history | answered | Betrand | CC BY-SA 3.0 |