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Sep 2, 2012 at 15:31 comment added Abhishek Parab I missed the subtle point that Guntram mentioned. Thanks for pointing it out.
Sep 2, 2012 at 6:04 comment added Todd Trimble Right, I was only addressing one of the questions of the OP. There is no reason I can think of why the statement for topological groups should imply the statement for algebraic groups.
Sep 2, 2012 at 5:24 comment added Guntram It is somewhat subtle, but an algebraic group is not a topological group for the Zariski topology. This is because for a topological group one requires that the multiplication map $\mu:G \times G \to G$ be continuous for the product topology, while for algebraic groups one puts on the Zariski topology on $G \times G$, which does not coincide with the product topology in general. So it is not clear to me why the argument for topological groups should imply the statement for algebraic groups.
Sep 2, 2012 at 3:45 vote accept Abhishek Parab
Sep 2, 2012 at 3:32 history answered Todd Trimble CC BY-SA 3.0