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Aug 29, 2012 at 16:29 comment added Chandan Singh Dalawat Hilbert himself defined it in terms of local norms from quadratic extensions, although he avoided the explicit mention of local fields. He derived the usual formulae for the symbol, so he (or others) could have easily verified the Steinberg property. But neither Hilbert nor Hasse mentions this property, even as a curiosity. My question is about making it explicit, which Serre does in his Corps locaux.
Aug 29, 2012 at 15:38 comment added paul Monsky Wasn't the symbol classically defined to be 1 iff the form axx+byy represents 1 in the local field? So everybody noticed it.
Aug 29, 2012 at 12:06 history edited Jim Humphreys
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Aug 29, 2012 at 11:52 answer added Jim Humphreys timeline score: 11
Aug 29, 2012 at 7:52 answer added Srilakshmi timeline score: 1
Aug 29, 2012 at 3:58 history asked Chandan Singh Dalawat CC BY-SA 3.0