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Sep 7, 2012 at 9:01 comment added ChantelD My ultimate aim is to "hopefully" show that under certain assumptions, the psp of an element in a Banach algebra consists entirely of Riezs points. This is just one step closer to that goal. I have seen it done by Schaefer for bounded linear operators, but I'm hoping to transport that result into Banach algebras.
Sep 7, 2012 at 8:46 comment added ChantelD Thanks for the comments. I realise I was not very clear in the theorem. I am actually assuming that psp(a) contains isolated points only and that $p(λ_i,a)= \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{\gamma_i}(a-\alpha)^{-1} d\alpha$ with $\gamma_i$ a circle around $\lambda_i$ which does not contain any other points of $\sigma(a)$.
Aug 27, 2012 at 23:40 comment added Duchamp Gérard H. E. One way to repair your theorem would be to consider that your $\lambda_i$ are isolated.
Aug 27, 2012 at 18:44 history edited Yemon Choi
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Aug 27, 2012 at 18:43 comment added Yemon Choi What happens when your Banach algebra has no non-trivial idempotents? How are you constructing these supposed spectral idempotents?
Aug 27, 2012 at 16:05 comment added Duchamp Gérard H. E. In case $sp(a)=[-1,1]$, $psp(a)={-1,1}$. How do you compute $p(1,a)$, for instance ?
Aug 27, 2012 at 13:45 history asked ChantelD CC BY-SA 3.0