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Apr 1 at 1:06 review Close votes
Apr 3 at 14:16
Jan 27 at 14:56 review Close votes
Feb 5 at 3:07
Jan 27 at 14:38 comment added David White I stumbled upon this question while googling something related to a class I am teaching. It's certainly not "research level" and if it was asked today it would have been closed. Future readers should not get inspired to ask similar questions. Back in 2009, the norms on mathoverflow were different.
Mar 6, 2023 at 16:46 comment added Pietro Majer A general reason is: because squares are round!
Mar 6, 2023 at 16:25 review Close votes
Mar 11, 2023 at 3:08
Mar 6, 2023 at 15:27 answer added devdrc timeline score: 0
Nov 28, 2015 at 17:18 history edited user9072 CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 4 characters in body; edited title
Jul 9, 2015 at 10:17 answer added Aaron Meyerowitz timeline score: 5
Mar 24, 2015 at 13:09 comment added Avicenna I agree it wasnt probably what user 678 was asking for. But the example I gave also gives a physical motivation why you want a measure of deviation which is independent of your coordinate frame and representation of your molecule.
Mar 23, 2015 at 18:34 comment added Michael Hardy @Avicenna : I think your comment is silly. Obviously the sum of all deviations from the mean is zero. The obvious alternative to squaring the deviations is not just leaving them alone; it's taking their absolute values, since those are the distances from the observations to the mean.
Mar 22, 2015 at 16:32 comment added Avicenna If you did not square them negative deviations would tend to cancel positive deviations and although you might have alot of deviation from mean you would not see it at all. An example is if you take a molecule near equilibrium and add all its oscillations vectorially they will tend to 0 and you might think that the molecule is not moving at all. But it is vibrating alot and that is reflected by the norm of the vectors that describe the oscillation. Same issue.
Mar 22, 2015 at 16:24 comment added Michael Hardy I've taken the liberty of inserting the missing term. ${}\qquad{}$
Mar 22, 2015 at 16:24 history edited Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 3.0
added 12 characters in body
Mar 22, 2015 at 15:16 comment added Yaakov Baruch In the formula for $\sigma$ above, the term $(2-2.6)^2$ should of course appear twice.
Mar 22, 2015 at 12:47 history edited Qfwfq CC BY-SA 3.0
edited body
Mar 22, 2015 at 10:55 answer added Yaakov Baruch timeline score: 1
Mar 22, 2015 at 2:02 answer added Michael Hardy timeline score: 21
Jan 14, 2014 at 16:36 comment added isomorphismes I hope that (over four years later) someone will return to this classical question. There seems to be something special about the number $p=2$ in $L_p$ norms. What is it? Flatness? Something exotic? (whatever makes Gleason's theorem work?) It seems to me that whatever makes $2$ special is independent of the CLT. It would be disappointing if the Gaussian assumption is the final reason for $p=2$.
S Jan 14, 2014 at 16:15 history suggested isomorphismes CC BY-SA 3.0
improved formatting
Jan 14, 2014 at 16:12 review Suggested edits
S Jan 14, 2014 at 16:15
Sep 10, 2011 at 10:16 answer added david timeline score: -3
Jul 30, 2010 at 1:22 answer added user8040 timeline score: 0
Oct 24, 2009 at 12:10 answer added Darsh Ranjan timeline score: 13
Oct 24, 2009 at 10:11 history edited Ilya Nikokoshev
edited tags
Oct 22, 2009 at 19:02 answer added Robert Parviainen timeline score: 6
Oct 22, 2009 at 18:07 comment added Ilya Nikokoshev +1, excellent question, though I think the title can be improved. I think you selected the wrong answer though — there are many better reasons for the deviation formula than convenience.
Oct 19, 2009 at 3:26 vote accept user668
Oct 18, 2009 at 22:17 answer added Reid Barton timeline score: 56
Oct 18, 2009 at 22:06 answer added Qiaochu Yuan timeline score: 13
Oct 18, 2009 at 22:02 answer added Anna Varvak timeline score: 1
Oct 18, 2009 at 18:29 answer added John D. Cook timeline score: -4
Oct 18, 2009 at 17:17 answer added Mark4483 timeline score: 24
Oct 18, 2009 at 16:59 history asked user668 CC BY-SA 2.5