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Aug 15, 2012 at 1:23 vote accept Jeanne Clelland
Aug 14, 2012 at 23:16 answer added Robert Bryant timeline score: 12
Aug 14, 2012 at 23:15 comment added Jeanne Clelland I'm not sure - if I remember correctly, the argument works for SO(n) in part because inverse and transpose are the same thing, which isn't true for SO(2,1). I'll have to think about it some more.
Aug 14, 2012 at 23:07 comment added Igor Rivin Doesn't same argument as for $SO(n)$ (that is, the argument that a symmetric matrix has an orthogonal basis of eigenvectors, to be found in every linear algebra text)?
Aug 14, 2012 at 20:21 history asked Jeanne Clelland CC BY-SA 3.0