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Aug 15, 2012 at 15:50 vote accept David Wasserman
Aug 14, 2012 at 18:37 comment added Ramiro de la Vega @Anton: I´m using the definition of "open" given by the OP´s link: $U$ is open iff for every $x \in U$ there is $r>0$ such that $B(x,r) \subseteq U$. With this definition it is obvious that the open sets form a topology. A different matter is whether sets of the form $B(x,r)$ are open or not.
Aug 14, 2012 at 14:45 comment added Anton Petrunin @Ramiro, I guess you want to use open balls as prebase, but that is not "the same definition".
Aug 14, 2012 at 13:33 answer added Ramiro de la Vega timeline score: 13
Aug 14, 2012 at 11:42 comment added Ramiro de la Vega @Anton: You don´t need anything to show that the open sets form a topology. It is just that the open balls might not be open so they are not a base for this topology.
Aug 14, 2012 at 0:33 answer added Mike Shulman timeline score: 3
Aug 14, 2012 at 0:08 answer added Nate Ackerman timeline score: 15
Aug 13, 2012 at 23:56 comment added Anton Petrunin No, something IS used. In general the intersection of two "open balls" is not "open".
Aug 13, 2012 at 22:00 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Careful: if $d$ isn't symmetric then there are two notions of open ball ("left open balls" and "right open balls") so you actually get two topologies. A nice example is the "counterclockwise distance" metric on $S^1$. One of the topologies you get is the "topology of counterclockwise convergence" and the other is the "topology of clockwise convergence."
Aug 13, 2012 at 21:56 history asked David Wasserman CC BY-SA 3.0