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Mar 17, 2019 at 7:27 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
added (sums-of-squares) and (computational-number-theory) - the question has been bumped by a new answer
Jan 22, 2017 at 13:50 history edited Anton CC BY-SA 3.0
edited title
Jan 20, 2017 at 5:45 comment added D.W. See also math.stackexchange.com/q/483101/14578
Dec 15, 2013 at 8:27 history edited Anton CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 10 characters in body; edited tags
Aug 30, 2013 at 23:46 comment added JRN See also mathoverflow.net/q/110239/12357
Oct 26, 2012 at 3:15 vote accept Anton
Oct 21, 2012 at 23:28 answer added Jeffrey Shallit timeline score: 25
Aug 10, 2012 at 7:45 comment added joro Anton, added some experimental results in the answer.
Aug 9, 2012 at 9:15 comment added Dror Speiser You are missing two things: the first is that what you said isn't exactly true, you don't know how long you'll search for a $z$ that actually works, i.e. that $n-z^2$ is a sum of two squares - sure, once it works you have $x,y$ from factorisation, but how many $z$ must you try before one works? second, subexponential factoring are probabilistic algorithms, without proofs, just like the method that has been proposed.
Aug 9, 2012 at 9:12 vote accept Anton
Oct 26, 2012 at 3:15
Aug 9, 2012 at 9:06 comment added joro @Dror factoring is subexponential, so finding a $z$ that does work will give subexponential complexity or am I missing something? This approach is far from efficient though.
Aug 9, 2012 at 8:51 comment added Dror Speiser I believe there are no references in the literature to this problem, nor does the current knowledge on primes allow to prove theorems such as those above. I also have a copy of Grosswald's book, and I can assure you that it does not contain an answer to this problem. I hate to sound so pessimistic, but hey, on the bright side, if you do find anything better than exponential complexity, you'll probably be the first to do so!
Aug 9, 2012 at 7:33 comment added Anton Sounds reasonable, but I have a couple of questions. First, notice that your proposition is true only for $m \equiv 1 \pmod{4}$. In that case $x$ and $z$ are odd, $y$ is even, and therefore $m - z^2 = x^2 + y^2 \equiv 1 \pmod{4}$. Is it always possible to find such a prime $p$ so that $p = x^2 + y^2$? Do you know any proof for this? Second, for $m \equiv 3 \pmod{8}$ we have $m - z^2 = x^2 + y^2 \equiv 2 \pmod{8}$. So in this case, I guess, we should look for $p$ such that $2p = x^2 + y^2$. Again, why does this $p$ always exists? Also, could you please give a link to an article about algorithm?
Aug 9, 2012 at 7:24 answer added joro timeline score: 11
Aug 9, 2012 at 6:59 comment added Dror Speiser For a fast probabilistic approach, based on Cramer's conjecture, simply take small values of $z$ in the appropriate arithmetic progression, and check if $n-z^2$ is a prime number which is $1$ mod $4$. Then, to get $p=x^2+y^2$, use Lagrange's algorithm.
Aug 9, 2012 at 5:50 history asked Anton CC BY-SA 3.0