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Aug 1, 2012 at 18:54 answer added Donu Arapura timeline score: 16
Aug 1, 2012 at 16:59 vote accept Harry
Aug 1, 2012 at 15:40 answer added Damian Rössler timeline score: 7
Aug 1, 2012 at 15:38 comment added Felipe Voloch The answer to your question is no. Poincaré's complete reducibility theorem. As you surmise, any $B$ in $A^n$ is isogenous to $A^m, m \le n$.
Aug 1, 2012 at 15:10 history asked Harry CC BY-SA 3.0