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Aug 1, 2012 at 14:55 vote accept Harry
Aug 1, 2012 at 14:53 comment added Donu Arapura To elaborate: If $f:B\to A$ is finite and separable (e.g. if $char\, k=0$) then Riemann-Hurwitz implies that the ramification divisor $R= K_A-f^*K_B=0$. Therefore $f$ is etale.
Aug 1, 2012 at 14:10 comment added Will Sawin In case this wasn't clear: a finite homomorphism is necessarily etale since if it etale over one point it is etale over every point, and finite morphisms are etale on a nonempty open subset, thus it is an isogeny.
Aug 1, 2012 at 13:57 history answered inkspot CC BY-SA 3.0