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Jul 24, 2012 at 14:48 comment added Malik Younsi @juan Yes, I tried that already, without much success unfortunately. Anyway, thank you for the suggestion.
Jul 24, 2012 at 10:24 comment added juan There exists a power series $q = a_2 k^2+\cdots$, after changing $k$ into $4k$ $a_n$ in this expansion is A005797 in the OEIS. Then your $f(k)$ is $(1-q)\vartheta_2^2/\sqrt{q}$. After substituting $q$ by this series. This may be a way to get your property. I do not say this is easy. Certainly in this way dissapear your terrible looking hyperbolic sin.
Jul 23, 2012 at 21:06 comment added Malik Younsi @GH: Yes indeed, I'm talking about the function $f(k)$ in the question.
Jul 23, 2012 at 20:56 comment added GH from MO @Malik: That is an interesting observation, and I have no idea how to explain it. Just to clarify: you talk about your $f(k)$, not juan's $f(q)$ which has positive coefficients as well.
Jul 23, 2012 at 20:43 comment added Malik Younsi +1, I'm convinced..! For my needs, a proof like that suffices (that is, with some estimates and then a numerical argument as in GH's remark), but I still wonder if there's something more going on. More precisely, the following question remains : Is it true that the coefficients in the Taylor series of f are all negative? (this seems to be true, and in particular would imply that all the derivative of $f$ are negative). Anyway, thank you both for this nice argument!
Jul 23, 2012 at 17:37 comment added GH from MO @juan: I agree, I was typing the same as you! See the "Remark" at the end of my post. Of course the credit is yours.
Jul 23, 2012 at 17:36 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 23, 2012 at 17:36 comment added juan For $q$ near $1$ this type of reasoning fails, but then we may use the other form of the function. Adding the two arguments all the result may be proved.
Jul 23, 2012 at 16:53 history answered GH from MO CC BY-SA 3.0