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Jul 22, 2012 at 15:36 answer added Igor Rivin timeline score: 2
Jul 22, 2012 at 15:25 comment added Andrew One possible way is to use Monte Carlo method.
Jul 22, 2012 at 15:21 comment added Noam D. Elkies It's still a nontrivial problem to integrate this numerically. If I did this right it comes down to an elementary multiple of the hyperelliptic integral $$ \int_0^\infty \left[ 1 - \det(1+{\bf M}t^2)^{-1/2} \right] \frac{dt}{t^2}. $$ By the way, the notation $du_1 \cdots du_n$ for the integration element is misleading: it suggests an $n$-dimensional integral, but $\|{\bf U}\|^2 = 1$ is an $n-1$-dimensional manifold.
Jul 22, 2012 at 10:44 comment added David Roberts You may get a better response at e.g. math.stackexchange.com, as MO is for questions of research interest (see the FAQ for more suggestions).
Jul 22, 2012 at 9:33 comment added Mateusz Wasilewski You can assume that $\bf{M}$ is diagonal, because orthogonal group acts on a sphere in a measure-preserving way, but that doesn't help, because even in two-dimensional case you end up with an elliptic integral.
Jul 22, 2012 at 7:11 history asked Drinker CC BY-SA 3.0