Timeline for Is it true that, as $\Bbb Z$-modules, the polynomial ring and the power series ring over integers are dual to each other?
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
19 events
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Jul 19, 2021 at 16:48 | comment | added | Michael | "Now choose any old integers" \to "Now choose any odd integers" :-) | |
Dec 31, 2009 at 12:35 | vote | accept | Maharana | ||
Dec 31, 2009 at 11:52 | comment | added | Kevin Buzzard | OK, fixed. Thanks Qiaochu for pointing that out! | |
Dec 31, 2009 at 11:26 | history | edited | Kevin Buzzard | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
clarification; Post Made Community Wiki
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Dec 31, 2009 at 10:54 | history | edited | Kevin Buzzard | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
typos/clarifications
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Dec 31, 2009 at 10:36 | history | edited | Kevin Buzzard | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
typo
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Dec 31, 2009 at 10:18 | history | edited | Kevin Buzzard | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
typo
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Dec 31, 2009 at 10:13 | history | undeleted | Kevin Buzzard | ||
Dec 31, 2009 at 10:13 | history | edited | Kevin Buzzard | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
typo
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Dec 31, 2009 at 9:54 | history | deleted | Kevin Buzzard | ||
Dec 31, 2009 at 9:53 | history | edited | Kevin Buzzard | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
deleted entire answer. I can't remove the post though because the answer has been accepted :-(
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Dec 31, 2009 at 9:47 | history | edited | Kevin Buzzard | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
added serious edit: answer as it stands is false.
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Dec 31, 2009 at 9:39 | comment | added | Qiaochu Yuan | You don't seem to have excluded the possibility that f(e_n) = 0 for all n but f is not the zero homomorphism; in other words, you don't seem to have shown that there are no nontrivial homomorphisms (prod Z)/(sum Z) -> Z. | |
Dec 31, 2009 at 9:39 | vote | accept | Maharana | ||
Dec 31, 2009 at 9:52 | |||||
Dec 31, 2009 at 8:58 | comment | added | Kevin Buzzard | Because if all the c_i are 1 then sum_i 2^ic_i=-1 in Z_2, so f(1,2,4,8,...)=-1 would not be a contradiction. | |
Dec 31, 2009 at 8:51 | comment | added | Qiaochu Yuan | Not that I'm not convinced, but why is the step where you pick d_i necessary? | |
Dec 31, 2009 at 8:43 | comment | added | Kevin Buzzard | NB to justify the "old chestnut" tag: if I remember correctly this proof (or some variant of it, possibly not mentioning p-adic numbers but morally doing the same thing) is in Kaplansky's "infinite abelian groups", so dates back to at least the 60s. Imre Leader told me this question when I was an undergrad. | |
Dec 31, 2009 at 8:37 | history | edited | Kevin Buzzard | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
clarification
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Dec 31, 2009 at 8:29 | history | answered | Kevin Buzzard | CC BY-SA 2.5 |