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Jul 13, 2012 at 0:59 comment added user24451 @mike In my setting, $X_T$ is a lump sum paid to the derivative buyer. My $B_T$ factor should be understand as the risk-free discounting factor. Thank you for pointing this inconsistency. Also, thank you for sharing that you find my question appropriate.
Jul 12, 2012 at 23:54 history answered mike CC BY-SA 3.0