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May 13, 2016 at 14:38 history wiki removed Todd Trimble
Nov 4, 2013 at 1:25 comment added Benjamin Dickman I make no claim on the importance of this result, but one might ask whether every Hausdorff Banach Manifold is regular. In the finite-dimensional case, the answer is yes. This is not so in the infinite-dimensional case; see mathoverflow.net/questions/104965/… for an explicit counterexample.
Aug 2, 2011 at 17:08 answer added jvkersch timeline score: 8
Aug 2, 2011 at 13:37 answer added Benoît Kloeckner timeline score: 3
Jan 27, 2010 at 21:53 answer added Ady timeline score: 1
Jan 18, 2010 at 3:04 answer added user1835 timeline score: 10
Jan 6, 2010 at 2:55 history made wiki Post Made Community Wiki by Beren Sanders
Jan 4, 2010 at 14:48 answer added Andrew Stacey timeline score: 14
Jan 4, 2010 at 1:40 answer added Kevin H. Lin timeline score: 3
Jan 2, 2010 at 6:35 answer added Ian timeline score: 6
Dec 31, 2009 at 10:37 answer added Georges Elencwajg timeline score: 8
Dec 31, 2009 at 5:49 answer added David Bar Moshe timeline score: 4
Dec 31, 2009 at 4:51 answer added Matt Noonan timeline score: 6
Dec 31, 2009 at 4:46 answer added mathphysicist timeline score: 6
Dec 31, 2009 at 2:15 answer added Reid Barton timeline score: 9
Dec 31, 2009 at 2:00 answer added Ilya Nikokoshev timeline score: 6
Dec 31, 2009 at 1:50 comment added Akhil Mathew In Serge Lang's Differential and Riemannian Manifolds, the preface has a detailed explanation of why Lang treats the infinite-dimensional case, with lots of examples.
Dec 31, 2009 at 1:42 answer added Ryan Budney timeline score: 19
Dec 31, 2009 at 0:50 answer added Daniel Moskovich timeline score: 6
Dec 31, 2009 at 0:40 history asked Beren Sanders CC BY-SA 2.5