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Jul 14, 2012 at 7:39 comment added tzhang Yes, it seems if we want an isomorphism between $Hom(U\otimes V, W)$ and $Hom(U, Hom(V,W))$ like in the ordinary case, so $Hom(V,W)$ should be an object in this category and we must replace with HOM.
Jul 11, 2012 at 18:10 history answered Peter May CC BY-SA 3.0