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Jul 3, 2012 at 23:55 answer added Gerry Myerson timeline score: 3
Jul 3, 2012 at 23:10 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 1
Jul 3, 2012 at 22:04 comment added Will Sawin @Igor: When $-n/m$ is a quadratic residue, the same argument of course works. When $-n/m$ is not a quadratic residue, several arguments show that the answer is $p+1$. (kernel of the norm map $\mathbb F_{p^2}^{\times}\to \mathbb F_p^{\times}$, comparing the number of solutions for a single $x$ to a corresponding equation of the first type, using the isomorphism of the projective completion and $\mathbb P^1$ and counting points at $\infty$, probably etc.) Unfortunately I think Mike Decaro knows the answer but wants a reference for it.
Jul 3, 2012 at 21:49 comment added Igor Rivin Well, when $m$ and $-n$ are both quadratic residues, (and $p\neq 2$) the answer seems to be $p-1,$ by factoring the left hand side.
Jul 3, 2012 at 21:03 history asked Mike Decaro CC BY-SA 3.0