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Jul 3, 2012 at 5:08 comment added Alex Becker Yes, they're very useful as a source of counterexamples. Essentially, they show that the derivatives of a function $\mathbb R^n$ on a subset of $\mathbb R^n$ carry only local information, even if that function is smooth. Contrast this with the case of $\mathbb C^n$, where knowing the derivatives of a differentiable function at a single point completely determines the function!
Jul 3, 2012 at 5:03 comment added Leo Thank you very much for everything, much appreciated. I never had much dealings with bump functions, but now they seem quite useful.
Jul 3, 2012 at 4:57 comment added Alex Becker @LeonLampret I found a similar fact (that $C^r_b(\mathbb R,\mathbb R)$ is not a lattice) mentioned on page 7 of "Integration: A Functional Approach" by Bichteler, which can be found at books.google.com/…. The desired result follows easily.
Jul 3, 2012 at 4:55 vote accept Leo
Jul 3, 2012 at 4:55 comment added Leo Yes, you are right, bump functions are what I really needed. Thank you! May I humbly ask for just one vote up, because I currently can't ask questions (as comments) in other threads?
Jul 3, 2012 at 4:49 history edited Alex Becker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 3, 2012 at 4:39 comment added Alex Becker I'm afraid I don't have any references, I just came up with the proof. And $x\vee -x$ is "the least upper bound of $x$ and $-x$", which I showed does not exist.
Jul 3, 2012 at 4:36 comment added Leo Could you please provide any reference for this theorem? I haven't found this in Duistermaat & Kolk's Multidimensional Real Analysis 1 & 2, nor in Callahan's Advanced Calculus, which are the more advanced calculus books that I have. Should I look among Functional Analysis books? Also, what of the nonexistence of $x\vee -x$ in $\mathcal{C}^r([−1,1],\mathbb{R})$?
Jul 3, 2012 at 4:32 history edited Alex Becker CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 3, 2012 at 4:12 history answered Alex Becker CC BY-SA 3.0