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Jun 29, 2012 at 15:08 comment added Jason Starr For a generically 'etale morphism, and assuming your local field is non-Archimedean, you can just use Hensel's lemma to prove that the image contains a sufficiently small adic neighborhood of the image point wherever it is 'etale. So the subgroup generated by the image will contain a sufficiently small adic neighborhood of the identity.
Jun 29, 2012 at 1:39 comment added ronggang @ Will: It is not surjective even in this case since in general $V^+$ or $V(k)^+$ is not equal to $V(k)$. e.g. PGL_2.
Jun 28, 2012 at 16:02 comment added Will Sawin If you're thinking of those specific maps, then it should be surjective. The reason is that the map from $\mathbb A^n$ to a connected unipotent group is not just surjective, it is an isomorphism. The algebraic inverse comes from the formal power series for $\log$. Isomorphisms are surjective on rational points. You might run into additional troubles if the decomposition into unipotents is not canonical, though.
Jun 28, 2012 at 14:33 comment added ronggang I mean the group generated by the set $f(k^n)$ has finite index in the group $V(k)$. Here is the main example in my mind. Suppose $V$ is generated by connected unipotent groups defined over $k$. Then we get such a map $f$ according to I Porp. 2.2 of Borel's algebraic groups. Then the question is whether the group generated by $k$ points of these unipotent groups has finite index in $V(k)$. If $V$ is semisimple then the question is whether the group they generate contains $V^+$ in the sense of 1973 paper of Borel and Tits( Homomorphismes "Abstraits" de Groupes Algebriques Simples).
Jun 28, 2012 at 12:35 comment added Jason Starr @ronggang -- What precisely do you mean by "index"? Why should the image of f be a subgroup of the group of $k$-points? For instance, the image on $k$-points of the map $f(x) = x^2 + 1$ is not a subgroup of the additive group.
Jun 28, 2012 at 8:24 comment added ronggang Sorry, finite index in $V(k)$.
Jun 28, 2012 at 8:20 comment added ronggang Thanks. In fact what I want to know is the following: Assume in addition that $V$ is a linear algebraic group. Is it true that the group generated by $f(k^n)$ has finite index in $V$?
Jun 28, 2012 at 8:03 vote accept ronggang
Jun 28, 2012 at 8:22
Jun 28, 2012 at 7:16 history answered Olivier Benoist CC BY-SA 3.0