Timeline for A fact about finite-dimensional manifolds I fear does not hold for Frechet manifolds (what's new?)
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 27, 2012 at 0:01 | history | edited | David Roberts♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Jun 26, 2012 at 12:00 | answer | added | Andrew Stacey | timeline score: 6 | |
| Jun 26, 2012 at 9:07 | history | edited | David Roberts♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 52 characters in body
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| Jun 26, 2012 at 9:00 | comment | added | David Roberts♦ | Whoops! I meant to say F is a section. That's the point of the whole thing. | |
| Jun 26, 2012 at 8:09 | comment | added | Jochen Wengenroth | Apparently, I do not understand the question: Otherwise, just take the isomorphism $J:V_1 \to V_2$ and set $F(x)=(J(x),0)$ so that $pr_1 \circ F =J$. | |
| Jun 26, 2012 at 3:41 | history | edited | David Roberts♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 189 characters in body
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| Jun 26, 2012 at 3:39 | comment | added | David Roberts♦ | :D tried that by email, with no response yet, so I thought I'd let everyone else have a go... | |
| Jun 26, 2012 at 3:37 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | I seem to remember the tongue-in-cheek use, perhaps only for a while, of an "ask-johnson" tag. Perhaps we need an "ask-stacey" tag? ;-) | |
| Jun 26, 2012 at 3:15 | history | asked | David Roberts♦ | CC BY-SA 3.0 |