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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:19 history edited CommunityBot
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Jun 22, 2012 at 18:23 comment added Michael Barr See the comment added by Sergio Buschi added to #2. I don't know enough homotopy theory to see why that map is injective on $\pi_1$. Actually, I should have recalled that Eilenberg-Moore had it. I was very familiar with it back when it first came out. But it was kind of overtaken by Beck's thesis and other things and disappeared from my memory.
Jun 21, 2012 at 22:17 comment added Lee Mosher @Michael: I'm not sure what inductive argument you are referring to here. Nogin's proof uses only that the inclusion of a subgraph into the full graph is $\pi_1$-injective, and that covering maps are $\pi_1$-injective. The subgraph and covering map to which these facts are applied are very concrete in her paper.
Jun 21, 2012 at 20:41 comment added Michael Barr I just wanted to say that the proof attributed to Maria Nogin uses more about homotopy than I wanted my readers to have to know. And there is something wrong with the inductive argument that that map is 1-1 since clearly the image of the length 1 word $a^{-1}$ does not end in either $c$ or $d^{-1}$. I guess the argument of Eilenberg-Moore may be the easiest. Now I have to track down the reference to Baer. Thanks to all who answered.
Jun 21, 2012 at 20:35 vote accept Michael Barr
Jun 21, 2012 at 19:22 comment added Theo Buehler I forgot: Eilenberg-Moore refer to the paper by R. Baer, Die Kompositionsreihe der Gruppe aller eineindeutigen Abbildungen einer unendlichen Menge auf sich, Studia Math. 5 (1934), 15-17 which is available on the home page of the Polish virtual library of science: pldml.icm.edu.pl. Direct link to the paper: matwbn.icm.edu.pl/ksiazki/sm/sm5/sm512.pdf
Jun 21, 2012 at 17:04 history edited Theo Buehler CC BY-SA 3.0
added screen shot of D.L. Johnson's exercise.
Jun 21, 2012 at 16:31 history edited Theo Buehler CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jun 21, 2012 at 16:21 history answered Theo Buehler CC BY-SA 3.0