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$\DeclareMathOperator\End{End}\newcommand{\Id}{\mathrm{Id}}$Let $E=\End(I)$ be the endomorphism ring of the abelian group $I$.

We have the following statement for $B\in E$, $p$ a prime number and $r$ a positive integer.

Statement $\mathcal{S}(p^r)$: $(\Id+B)^{p^r}=\Id\quad \Leftrightarrow \quad p^r B=0$.

One can prove that the statement $\mathcal{S}(p^r)$ is true if $I$ is a finite cyclic $p$-group or if $I=(\Bbb{Z}/p^{t}\Bbb{Z})^{\oplus k}$ for some $t>r$.

QUESTIONS:

  1. Is this true in general?
  2. If it is not true in general, for which abelian groups is it true?

Update:

In view of Achim Krauses answer we have to require that $p>2$. Then it is true for the given examples (for the same $p$).

Second update:

I´m leaving the original question, because otherwise the answer of Achim Krause would loose its meaning.

The modified question reads: Assume $I$ is a finite $p$-group and let $E$ be its endomorpism ring. Assume furthermore that $p\mid B^k$ for some positive integer $k$.

Under which additional conditions the following equivalence is true: $(\Id+B)^{p^r}=\Id\quad \Leftrightarrow \quad p^r B=0$

If $I=(\Bbb{Z}/p^{t}\Bbb{Z})^k$ then the statement holds for $p\ge 2k$. Note that in this case $p\mid B^n$ for some $n\ge 1$ implies that $p\mid B^k$.

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    $\begingroup$ This statement can't be true or false if you don't introduce $p,r$. The statement involves quantifiers on $p,r$? It depends on $p,r$ (in which case what do you mean by "Is this true in general?" ?? $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Nov 8, 2022 at 21:45
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    $\begingroup$ Added the definition of $p$ and $r$. $\endgroup$
    – san
    Commented Nov 9, 2022 at 3:42
  • $\begingroup$ I added a name to the statement for clarification: in particular, do you confirm that the prime $p$ is the same when you say that $\mathcal{S}(p^r)$ holds for ($\mathbf{Z}/p^t\mathbf{Z})^k$? $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Nov 9, 2022 at 6:47
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    $\begingroup$ By the way, after reading Achim Krause's comment, the statement is even false for $r=t=1$: when $I=(\mathbf{Z}/p\mathbf{Z})^k$ ($k\ge 1$), every $B\in E$ satisfies $pB=0$, but it is not true that it always satisfies $(1+B)^p=1$ : just choose $B=-\mathrm{Id}$. Hence even $I$ cyclic of order 2 fails. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Nov 9, 2022 at 8:21
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    $\begingroup$ Note that in view of the title, you might be assuming that $B$ is nilpotent. But Achim Krause's comment provides a counterexample with $B$ nilpotent. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Nov 9, 2022 at 8:27

1 Answer 1

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The statement doesn't even hold in the claimed case: For $p=2,r=1$, $I=\mathbb{Z}/8$, $B=-2\cdot \operatorname{id}$, we have $(\operatorname{id}+B)^2=\operatorname{id}$, but $2B\neq 0$.

EDIT: The question has now edited to claim that the original claim holds for $p>2$. That's not true either: Consider $I = \bigoplus \mathbb{Z} /p^2$, with $p$ summands, and let $(\operatorname{id} +B)$ be the map which cyclically permutes summands. Then $(\operatorname{id} +B)^p =\operatorname{id} $, but $pB\neq 0$.

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