hello, it is often said that a conformal mapping preserves the Laplace equetion in 2D. However, if this is true for the cartesian coordinates (x,y), where the laplacian is: $$ \frac{\partial^2 \phi}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2 \phi}{\partial y^2}=0 $$
is it true for the cylindrical coordinates (r,z) where:
$$ \frac{\partial^2 \phi}{\partial r^2}+\frac{\partial^2 \phi}{\partial z^2}+\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial r}=0? $$
More precisely, if you have a function $\phi(r,z)$ verifying the previous equation, is it also verified by $\psi(u,v)$ is $u+i v=f(z+ir)$ and f is analytic/holomorphic?