1
$\begingroup$

Let $G$ be a group satisfying $H_1(G;\mathbb{Z})$ is free abelian group and $H_i(G;\mathbb{Z})=0$ for $i\geq 2$.

Is it true that $G$ is free group?

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

8
$\begingroup$

Perfect, locally free groups exist. Such a thing has vanishing $H_1(G,\mathbb Z)$, has $H_p(G,M)=0$ for all $p\geq2$ and all $M$, and is not free.

A. J. Berrick constructs an explicit example here. If you prefer an example where $H_1(G,\mathbb Z)$ is free and non-zero, just consider the free product of a perfect, locally free group with a non-trivial free group.

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

Groups with $H_i(G;\mathbb{Z})=0$ for all $i>0$ are called acyclic groups. There are lots of them. As Mariano Suarez-Alvarez says, any perfect locally-free group is acyclic. There are also finitely-presented examples. The Higman group $G=\langle a,b,c,d\,\,:\,\,a^b=a^2,\,b^c=b^2,\, c^d=c^2,\, d^a=d^2\rangle$ is an example. These groups play a vital role in the proof of the Kan-Thurston theorem: see for example the article `The topology of discrete groups' by Baumslag, Dyer and Heller (J Pure Appl Alg 16 (1980) 1-47) which discusses the Higman group.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.