Sorry if this is obvious. I'd like to understand why the map
WC(E/Q) -> H^1(Gal(Q/Q), E(Q))
is bijective. Thanks.
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This should be in chapter 10 of Silverman's AEC (sorry if I'm wrong about this!).
answered Oct 19, 2009 at 1:26
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$\begingroup$ See also Bjorn Poonen's course notes math.mit.edu/~poonen/papers/Qpoints.pdf, section 4.5 on twists, which also cites Serre. $\endgroup$ Oct 19, 2009 at 1:38