Doesn't Zorn's Lemma count? Of course in ZF this is not a Theorem (rather it is undecidable), but in ZF+AC it is a real Theorem which is often mentioned without proof, especially in classes outside of mathematical logic. For example, in commutative algebra it is quoted in order to get enough maximal ideals in rings, etc.
Of course it is not hard to understand the proof of AC => Zorn, but many students take this on faith. I don't know if this also applies to mathematicians.