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Post Closed as "too localized" by Andreas Blass, Simon Thomas, GH, Henry Cohn, J.C. Ottem
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If $$ If (f \circ g \circ f)(x)=x, \forall x \epsilon \mathbb{R}$$ then show that $$(f \circ g)(x)=( g \circ f)(x)$$ |
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Not hard Calculus exercise$$ If (f \circ g \circ f)(x)=x, \forall x \epsilon \mathbb{R}$$ then show that $$(f \circ g)(x)=( g \circ f)(x)$$
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