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Post Closed as "too localized" by Martin Brandenburg, Alain Valette, Dan Petersen, Charles Siegel, Simon Thomas
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What does $\mathrm{Gal}(\overline{\mathbb{Q}}_{p}/\mathbb{Q})$ mean? ($p$ is a prime number.) If it is defined as $\mathrm{Aut}(\overline{\mathbb{Q}}_{p}/\mathbb{Q})$, then does it have any property like usual galois groups? For example, is the following statement true? : Let $\alpha \in \overline{\mathbb{Q}}_{p}$, and assume that for any $\sigma \in \mathrm{Aut} (\overline{ \mathbb{Q} } _{p} / \mathbb{Q})$, $\sigma (\alpha) = \alpha$. Then, $\alpha \in \mathbb{Q}$. If this is true, then how can I prove it? Please give me any advice. Thanks! |
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What does Gal(Q_p/Q) mean?What does $\mathrm{Gal}(\overline{\mathbb{Q}}_{p}/\mathbb{Q})$ mean? ($p$ is a prime number.) If it is defined as $\mathrm{Aut}(\overline{\mathbb{Q}}_{p}/\mathbb{Q})$, then does it have any property like usual galois groups? For example, is the following statement true? : Let $\alpha \in \overline{\mathbb{Q}}_{p}$, and assume that for any $\sigma \in \mathrm{Aut} (\overline{ \mathbb{Q} } _{p} / \mathbb{Q})$, $\sigma (\alpha) = \alpha$. Then, $\alpha \in \mathbb{Q}$. If this is true, then how can I prove it? Please give me any advice.
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