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The set of all smooth maps $S^1\to M^n$ ($M$ is a smooth manifold) is a generalized manifold(see http://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/smooth+loop+space).

I was wondering if the set of singular loops (maps with selfcrossings or zeros of derivative) is a (Fréchet,Frolicher,diffeological)submanifold of loop space?

EDIT: it is clear that answer is no (see answer below). So, I rewrite question: is it true that set of singular loops is a collection of submanifolds different codimension(set of loops with one selfintersection has codimension $dim M-2$, loops with zero of derivative has codimension $dim M -3$ and so on. Set of loops with infinite number of singularities should have infinite codimension... Let's forget about them.)

So, the question is about local situation: for example, let's consider a loop with one self-intersection (and without other singlarities). Is it true that set of near loops with one self-intersection is a submanifold in sense of (Fréchet|Frolicher|diffeological)?

EDIT 2. I reformulate question. $map(S^1 \to \mathbb R^3)$ is a functional space, so we can apply a technique of singularity theory. Generic map $f$ with one self-intersection has one-parameter versal deformation $V:[0,1]\times S^1\to \mathbb R^3$ - and any deformation are induced from $V$. Does it imply that $D$(set of singular loops) near the $f$ is a submanifold of codimension 1 in sense of Fréchet or Frolicher?

ADDED. Andrew Stacey explains in his answer and in http://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/on+the+manifold+structure+of+singular+loops why a stratum of a loop space is not a submanifold (the reason is tha same as in a standart smooth injection of line to plane where image is not a submanifold).

But locally, as Ryan said, each stratum is a submanifold (in sense of Frechet). And the kast question is:

For a smooth submanifold $X⊂Y$ of codimension 2, for a general point $x∈X$ we always have a map from small neghbourhood $U$ of $x$ to $D^2$ ($x∈U⊂Y,f:U→D^2$) such that $U\cap X= f^{−1}(0)$. I belive that in situation of space of loops there is no such map... Is it true?

The set of all smooth maps $S^1\to M^n$ ($M$ is a smooth manifold) is a generalized manifold(see http://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/smooth+loop+space).

I was wondering if the set of singular loops (maps with selfcrossings or zeros of derivative) is a (Fréchet,Frolicher,diffeological)submanifold of loop space?

EDIT: it is clear that answer is no (see answer below). So, I rewrite question: is it true that set of singular loops is a collection of submanifolds different codimension(set of loops with one selfintersection has codimension $dim M-2$, loops with zero of derivative has codimension $dim M -3$ and so on. Set of loops with infinite number of singularities should have infinite codimension... Let's forget about them.)

So, the question is about local situation: for example, let's consider a loop with one self-intersection (and without other singlarities). Is it true that set of near loops with one self-intersection is a submanifold in sense of (Fréchet|Frolicher|diffeological)?

EDIT 2. I reformulate question. $map(S^1)\to map(S^1 \to \mathbb R^3$ R^3)$is a functional space, so we can apply a techic technique of singularity theory. Generic map$f$with one self-intersection has one-parameter versal deformation$V:[0,1]\times S^1\to \mathbb R^3$- and any deformation are induced from$V$. Does it imply that$D$(set of singular loops) near the$f$is a submanifold of codimension 1 in sense of Fréchet or Frolicher? 6 added 419 characters in body; edited tags The set of all smooth maps$S^1\to M^n$($M$is a smooth manifold) is a generalized manifold(see http://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/smooth+loop+space). I was wondering if the set of singular loops (maps with selfcrossings or zeros of derivative) is a (Fréchet,Frolicher,diffeological)submanifold of loop space? EDIT: it is clear that answer is no (see answer below). So, I rewrite question: is it true that set of singular loops is a collection of submanifolds different codimension(set of loops with one selfintersection has codimension$dim M-2$, loops with zero of derivative has codimension$dim M -3$and so on. Set of loops with infinite number of singularities should have infinite codimension... Let's forget about them.) So, the question is about local situation: for example, let's consider a loop with one self-intersection (and without other singlarities). Is it true that set of near loops with one self-intersection is a submanifold in sense of (Fréchet|Frolicher|diffeological)? EDIT 2. I reformulate question.$map(S^1)\to \mathbb R^3$is a functional space, so we can apply a techic of singularity theory. Generic map$f$with one self-intersection has one-parameter versal deformation$V:[0,1]\times S^1\to \mathbb R^3$- and any deformation are induced from$V$. Does it imply that$D$(set of singular loops) near the$f\$ is a submanifold of codimension 1 in sense of Fréchet or Frolicher?

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