Suppose there is such an injection $f$. Let $x$ and $y$ be distinct points in the plane and let $g_1$ and $g_2$ be paths from $x$ to $y$ such that $g_1(r_1)\neq g_2(r_2)$ for $r_1,r_2\in (0,1)$. Now this implies that $f\circ g_1((0,1))\cap f\circ g_2((0,1))=\emptyset$, contradicting the intermediate value theorem.