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# Is a profinite group with a finite number of simple quotients and Jordan-HolderJordan-Hölder factors finitely generated?

Assume $G$ is a profinite group such that the Jordan-Holder Jordan-Hölder factors appearing in the finite quotients vary in a finite number of isomorphism classes of simple groups. Assume also $G$ to have a finite number of subgroups whose corresponding quotient is simple. Does this imply that $G$ is (topologically) finitely generated?

I'm asking here after some attempt to make work a modification of the principle the for a $p$-group $P$ each set of elements generating $P/\Phi(P)$ is a generating set for $P$. For $P$ groups the question is clearly much simpler, and i have been thinking that elements generating each simple quotient had to be be enough (this is not true, as shown by the simple example $Sym_n$. But the different symmetric groups have bigger and bigger Jordan-Holder factors). However the issue is not totally trivial, because maximal (non-normal) subgroups are in generally not contained in a proper normal subgroup, so it is not possible to replicate a similar proof smoothly. Note that the hypothesis of having a finite number of factors rules out silly couterexamples like $\prod_{i=4}^\infty Alt_i$.

Assume $G$ is a profinite group such that the Jordan-Holder factors appearing in the finite quotients vary in a finite number of isomorphism classes of simple groups. Assume also $G$ to have a finite number of subgroups whose corresponding quotient is simple. Does this imply that $G$ is (topologically) finitely generated?
I'm asking here after some attempt to make work a modification of the principle the for a $p$-group $P$ each set of elements generating $P/\Phi(P)$ is a generating set for $P$. For $P$ groups the question is clearly much simpler, and i have been thinking that elements generating each simple quotient had to be be enough (this is not true, as shown by the simple example $Sym_n$. But the different symmetric groups have bigger and bigger Jordan-Holder factors). However the issue is not totally trivial, because maximal (non-normal) subgroups are in generally not contained in a proper normal subgroup, so it is not possible to replicate a similar proof smoothly. Note that the hypothesis of having a finite number of factors rules out silly couterexamples like $\prod_{i=4}^\infty Alt_i$.