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Following on from my last two questions link text and link text: Is it correct (and useful) to say that the relationship between Connes' cyclic cohomology approach to de Rham cohomology and Woronowicz's differential calculi approach, is a noncommutative generalisation of the difference between ordinary differentials and Kahler differentials respectively?

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Following on from my last two questions link text and link text: Is it correct (and useful) to say that the relationship between Connes' cyclic cohomology approach to de Rham cohomology and Woronowicz's differential calculi approach, is a noncommutative generalisation between of the difference between ordinary differentials and Kahler differentials respectively?

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Following on from my last two questions link text and link text: Is it correct (and useful) to say that the relationship between Connes' cyclic cohomology approach to de Rham cohomology and the Woronowicz's differential calculi approach, is a noncommutative generalisation between between ordinary differentials and Kahler differentials respectively?

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