No. Conceptually, the reason is that $j'(z)$ is a weakly holomorphic (= holomorphic except at the cusp at infinity, where it has a pole) modular form of weight $2$, so it cannot be expressed in terms of $j$ (weakly holomorphic modular form of weight $0$) and $z$ (not anywhere near being a modular form).
For a rigorous proof:
Note that $j(z+1) = j(z)$, so $j'(z+1) = j'(z)$.
Suppose that the $j$ invariant did satisfy a differential equation of your form. Then we'd have $f(j(z), z) = f(j(z+1), z+1) = f(j(z), z+1)$. Note that the functions $z$ and $j(z)$ are algebraically independent (this is just saying that $j(z)$ is a transcendental function). Hence the underlying two-variable rational function $f(x, y)$ satisfies $f(x, y) = f(x, y+1)$. This then easily implies that $f(x, y)$ must be independent of $y$, e.g. $f(x, y) = g(x)$ for some rational function $g$.
So our original differential equation must actually take the form $j'(z) = f(j(z))$. But the left hand side is a nonzero (weakly holomorphic) modular form of weight $0$, 2$ while the right hand side has weight 0, and a nonzero modular form has a unique weight, so this is impossible.