MathOverflow will be down for maintenance for approximately 3 hours, starting Monday evening (06/24/2013) at approximately 9:00 PM Eastern time (UTC-4).
show/hide this revision's text 2 added 301 characters in body; added 12 characters in body

According to a footnote in the famous Hardy-Ramanujan paper "Asymptotic formulae in combinatory analysis", the function $f(q)=\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1-q^n}$ vanishes like $f(re^{i\theta})=o((1-r)^{1/4})$ f(re^{i\theta})=o((1-r)^{1/4-\varepsilon})$ for almost all $\theta$. No proof is given, though I can't imagine Hardy would have made a statement like this without a proof in his pocket.

Edit: This isn't actually hard to guess at. By Euler's pengatonal number theorem, we have $f(q)^{-1}=\sum_{n\in \mathbf{Z}}(-1)^{n}q^{n(3n-1)/2}$, so Plancherel gives

$\int_{0}^{2\pi}|f(re^{i\theta})|^{-2}d\theta=2\pi\sum_{n\in \mathbf{Z}}r^{n(3n-1)} \sim 2 \pi^{3/2}3^{-1/2}(1-r)^{-1/2}.$

show/hide this revision's text 1

According to a footnote in the famous Hardy-Ramanujan paper "Asymptotic formulae in combinatory analysis", the function $f(q)=\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1-q^n}$ vanishes like $f(re^{i\theta})=o((1-r)^{1/4})$ for almost all $\theta$. No proof is given, though I can't imagine Hardy would have made a statement like this without a proof in his pocket.