Hi.
I have this idea about developing what I call a "continuum sum", that is, a method to "add up a non-integer number of terms", i.e. to see if there is a "natural" way to assign a meaning to the expression
$\sum_{n=a}^b f(n)$
where a $a$ and b $b$ are non-integer fractional, real, or even complex numbers, at least for a sufficiently well-behaved target function f$f$ defined on at least the real numbers, but for this method I'm considering that it is defined on the complex numbers as well.
There was a method proposed by Markus Mueller in an article called "Fractional sums and Euler-like identities" that attempts to do this, but it suffers from some drawbacks. For example, it does not appear the method is of any use in summing, e.g.
$\sum_{n=a}^b n! = \sum_{n=a}^b \Gamma(n+1)$
though a solution does exist, namely
$\sum_{k=1}^{n} k! = \frac{-e + \mathrm{Ei}(1) + \pi i + E_{n+2}(-1) \Gamma(n+2)}{e}$
using the exponential integral and En-function.
The idea is to try to come up with some kind of "grand unified theory" of these kinds of sums, that would enable sense to be made out of the fractal sum for a wide variety of functions and from which results like the one above could be derived or proven to be consistent with.
Anyway, after experimenting with some methods, I decided it'd be easiest to limit attention to analytic functions, trying to find a "sum operator" that yields analytic sums, on the complex numbers. The basic idea is to find such an operator, call it $\Sigma$, such that $\Delta \Sigma f = f$, where $\Delta$ is the unit forward difference operator. If $F = \Sigma f$, then $\sum_{n=a}^{b} f(n) = F(b+1) - F(a)$.
The approach I settled on (how I got to this is omitted here for the sake of brevity), is using Fourier series. If $f(z)$ is a periodic function with period $P$, then
$f(z) = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} a_n e^{\frac{2\pi i}{P} nz}$.
Now we have a simple formula for the sum of an exponential: $\sum_{n=0}^{z-1} e^{un} = \frac{e^{un} - 1}{e^u - 1}$. We can apply this to the above to get
$\sum_{n=0}^{z-1} f(n) = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{a_n}{e^{\frac{2\pi i}{P} n} - 1} \left(e^{\frac{2\pi i}{P} nz} - 1\right)$
with the term at $n = 0$ on the right (for which the given expression fails directly with a division by 0) interpreted as $a_0 z$. This series can converge even when the given function fails some of the mentioned requirements, however it does not work for functions with harmonics of period 1.
My idea, then, was to consider a sequence of periodic entire functions $f_i$ that converge to a given function $f$ that's entire and aperiodic, but not necessarily of exponential type less than $2\pi$. Then take their continuum sums by the above formula and take the limit. If this limit exists, call it the continuum sum of $f$ itself. The questions I have, then, are, what conditions are needed on $f$ for this to work, and also, more importantly, is the limit independent of the chosen sequence of functions, and if so, what is the proof, and if not, what is a counterexample? This is why I mean by it being "viable" or not. If the limit doesn't work, this isn't of much use. I'm not necessarily interested in a complete proof but more on advice about how one would go about approaching a proof of this, useful reference material, etc. as I'd like to do some of it myself. However, if the hypothesis is false, I'd like a full counterexample.
Add: The justification for considering this as "natural" is based on two approaches. One is Faulhaber's formula, which gives a sum of powers by the Bernoulli polynomials, and this sum has a simple uniqueness criterion: it sends polynomials to polynomials. One can then apply this to Taylor series. The trouble is, that such a method looks only to work on an extremely limited set of analytic functions: entire functions of exponential type less than $2\pi$. This limit seems a bit too onerous. This is one of the "some methods" I mentioned as having experimented with for defining the continuum sum. It is somewhat long to give the whole derivation, but for $e^{uz}$, summed from $0$ to $z-1$, and $|u| < 2\pi$, it yields $\frac{e^{uz} - 1}{e^u - 1}$. Another justification is much simpler. We know that $\Delta e^{uz} = \left(e^u - 1\right) e^{uz}$. Thus, it'd seem sensible to presume $\Sigma \left(e^u - 1\right) e^{uz} = e^{uz}$. This leads to (assuming $\Sigma$ is linear), $\Sigma e^{uz} = \frac{e^{uz}}{e^u - 1}$, and then the sum from $0$ to $z-1$ is $\frac{e^{uz} - 1}{e^u - 1}$. Yet I suppose one could get a third justification is that both of these methods give the same result. Finally, because $\Sigma$ is linear, it is no big step to obtain the result for periodic functions.