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The following is a FAQ that I sometimes get asked, and it occurred to me that I do not have an answer that I am completely satisfied with. In Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis, following Theorem 3.29, he writes:

One might thus be led to conjecture that there is a limiting situation of some sort, a “boundary” with all convergent series on one side, all divergent series on the other side—at least as far as series with monotonic coefficients are concerned. This notion of “boundary” is of course quite vague. The point we wish to make is this: No matter how we make this notion precise, the conjecture is false. Exercises 11(b) and 12(b) may serve as illustrations.

Exercise 11(b) states that if $\sum_n a_n$ is a divergent series of positive reals, then $\sum_n a_n/s_n$ also diverges, where $s_n = \sum_{i=1}^n a_n$. Exercise 12(b) states that if $\sum_n a_n$ is a convergent series of positive reals, then $\sum_n a_n/\sqrt{r_n}$ converges, where $r_n = \sum_{i\ge n} a_i$.

Although these two exercises are suggestive, they are not enough to convince me of Rudin’s strong claim that no matter how we make this notion precise, the conjecture is false. Are there any stronger theorems in this direction?

Edit. For example, are there any theorems about the topology/geometry of the spaces of all convergent/divergent series, where a series is viewed as a point in $\mathbb{R}^\infty$ or $(\mathbb{R}^+)^\infty$ in the obvious way?

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# Nonexistence of boundary between convergent and divergent series?

The following is a FAQ that I sometimes get asked, and it occurred to me that I do not have an answer that I am completely satisfied with. In Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis, following Theorem 3.29, he writes:

One might thus be led to conjecture that there is a limiting situation of some sort, a “boundary” with all convergent series on one side, all divergent series on the other side—at least as far as series with monotonic coefficients are concerned. This notion of “boundary” is of course quite vague. The point we wish to make is this: No matter how we make this notion precise, the conjecture is false. Exercises 11(b) and 12(b) may serve as illustrations.

Exercise 11(b) states that if $\sum_n a_n$ is a divergent series of positive reals, then $\sum_n a_n/s_n$ also diverges, where $s_n = \sum_{i=1}^n a_n$. Exercise 12(b) states that if $\sum_n a_n$ is a convergent series of positive reals, then $\sum_n a_n/\sqrt{r_n}$ converges, where $r_n = \sum_{i\ge n} a_i$.

Although these two exercises are suggestive, they are not enough to convince me of Rudin’s strong claim that no matter how we make this notion precise, the conjecture is false. Are there any stronger theorems in this direction?