|
Post Reopened by Joel David Hamkins, Anton Petrunin, José Figueroa-O'Farrill, Timothy Chow, Andres Caicedo
|
||||
|
|
||||
|
Post Closed as "not a real question" by Bill Johnson, Martin Brandenburg, Robin Chapman, Harry Gindi, Kevin Buzzard
|
||||
|
|
||||
|
2 | edited body; added 2 characters in body | ||
|
Recently, I learnt in my analysis class the proof of the uncountability of the reals via the Nested Interval Theorem. At first, I was excited to see a variant proof (as it did not use the diagonal argument explicitly). However, as time passed, I began to see that the proof was just the old one veiled under new terminology. So, till now I believe that any proof of the uncountability of the reals must uses Cantor'sdiagonal use Cantor's diagonal argument. Is my belief justified? Thank you. |
||||
|
1 |
|
||
