The ever-controversial reverse Polish notation for functions: $f(x) = xf$. Thus in composition, the order makes sense: $(g \circ f)(x) = x f g$ (this point is moot for the fortunate Hebrew- and Arabic-speaking mathematicians). I hate this notation in practice but I can't deny that it is objectively right and "just makes sense" in more or less the same way that the original post discusses writing $B^A = A \to B$. Please no one vote this up.
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