Wolfram's MathWorld website, at the page on functions, makes the following claim about the notation $f(x)$ for a function:

While this notation is deprecated by professional mathematicians, it is the more familiar one for most nonprofessionals.

From context, it appears that this is referring to the use of $f(x)$ to refer to the actual function, rather than just to a particular value, when $x$ is (in the context) a dummy variable.

Is this true? Do professional mathematicians "deprecate" this notation?

To avoid long and windy discussions as to the values or otherwise of this notation (which would be much more appropriate in a blog), this question should be viewed as a poll. As MO runs on StackExchange 1.0, it doesn't have the feature whereby the actual "up" and "down" votes for an answer can be easily seen. Therefore I shall post two answers, one in favour and one against, the following statement. Please only vote up. A vote for one answer will be taken as a vote against the other. The Law of the Excluded Middle does not hold here. The motion is:

This house believes that the notation $f(x)$ to refer to a function has value in professional mathematics and that there is no need to apologise or feel embarrassed when using it thus.

This poll has now run its course. The final tally can be seen below.

MathWord from Wolfram

Wolfram's MathWorld website, at the page on functions, makes the following claim about the notation $f(x)$ for a function:

While this notation is deprecated by professional mathematicians, it is the more familiar one for most nonprofessionals.

From context, it appears that this is referring to the use of $f(x)$ to refer to the actual function, rather than just to a particular value, when $x$ is (in the context) a dummy variable.

Is this true? Do professional mathematicians "deprecate" this notation?

To avoid long and windy discussions as to the values or otherwise of this notation (which would be much more appropriate in a blog), this question should be viewed as a poll. As MO runs on StackExchange 1.0, it doesn't have the feature whereby the actual "up" and "down" votes for an answer can be easily seen. Therefore I shall post two answers, one in favour and one against, the following statement. Please only vote up. A vote for one answer will be taken as a vote against the other. The Law of the Excluded Middle does not hold here. The motion is:

This house believes that the notation $f(x)$ to refer to a function has value in professional mathematics and that there is no need to apologise or feel embarrassed when using it thus.

This is somewhat of a cloned topic

MathWord from another question I posted at Stackoverflow, but Wolframclaims that , at the page on functions makes the following claim about the notation $f(x)$ for a function:

While this notation f(x) is deprecated in favor of f:x->f(x): http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Function.html

I understand by professional mathematicians, it is the more familiar one for most nonprofessionals.

From context, it appears that f(xthis is referring to the use of $f(x)$ to refer to the actual function, rather than just to a particular value, when $x$ is (in the context) isn't at tedious a dummy variable.

Is this true? Do professional mathematicians "deprecate" this notation?

To avoid long and windy discussions as to the other values or otherwise of this notation (which would be much more appropriate in a blog), but what are this question should be viewed as a poll. As MO runs on StackExchange 1.0, it doesn't have the differences feature whereby the actual "up" and "down" votes for an answer can be easily seen. Therefore I shall post two answers, one in favour and one against, the following statement. Please only vote up. A vote for one answer will be taken as a vote against the other. The Law of the Excluded Middle does not hold here. The motion is:

This house believes that the notation ? I've shown this $f(x)$ to my Calc AB teacher but he's never seen refer to a function has value in professional mathematics and that there is no need to apologise or feel embarrassed when using it beforethus.

What are the pros/cons of either?

This is somewhat of a cloned topic from another question I posted at Stackoverflow, but Wolfram claims that the function notation f(x) is deprecated in favor of f:x->f(x): http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Function.html

I understand that f(x) isn't at tedious as the other notation, but what are the differences in the notation? I've shown this to my Calc AB teacher but he's never seen it before.

What are the pros/cons of either?