Hello.
I have been trying very hard to show that $\sum\limits_{j=0}^{k-1}(-1)^{j+1}(k-j)^{2k-2} \binom{2k+1}{j} \ge 0$ and could not quite get anywhere. This inequality has been verified by computer for $k\le40$.
Some clues that might work (kindly provided by Doron Zeilberger) are as follows:
Let $Ef(x):=f(x-1)$, let
$P_k(E):=\sum_{j=0}^{k-1}((-1)^{(j+1)}*binomial(2*k+1,j)*E^j$P_k(E):=\sum_{j=0}^{k-1}(-1)^{(j+1)}*\binom{2*k+1}{j}*E^j$;These satisfy the inhomogeneous recurrence
$P_k(E)-(1-E)^2*P_{k-1}(E)=Some Binomial In E$;The original sum can be expressed as
$P_k(E)x^{(2*k-2)} | x=k $;Try to derive a recurrence for
$P_k(E)x^{(2*k-2)}$before plugging-in $x=k$ and somehow use induction, possibly having to prove a more general statement to facilitate the induction.
Unfortunately I do not know how to find a recurrence such as suggested in 4.
I would appreciate any help that members of the MathOverflow community can provide.

