I recently learned of the result by Carleson and Hunt (1968) which states that if $f \in L^p$ for $p > 1$, then the Fourier series of $f$ converges to $f$ pointwise-a.e. Also, Wikipedia informs me (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convergence_of_fourier_series#Norm_convergence) that if $f \in L^p$ for $1 < p < \infty$, then the Fourier series of $f$ converges to $f$ in $L^p$. Either of these results implies that if $f \in L^p$ for $1 < p < \infty$, then the Fourier series of $f$ converges to $f$ in measure.
My first question is about the $p = 1$ case. That is:
If $f \in L^1$, will the Fourier series of $f$ converge to $f$ in measure?
I also recently learned that there exist functions $f \in L^1$ whose Fourier series diverge (pointwise) everywhere. Moreover, such a Fourier series may converge (Galstyan 1985) or diverge (Kolmogorov?) in the $L^1$ metric.
My second question is similar:
Do there exist functions $f \in L^1$ whose Fourier series converge pointwise a.e., yet diverge in the $L^1$ metric?
(Notes: Here, I mean the Fourier series with respect to the standard trigonometric system. I am also referring only to the Lebesgue measure on [0,1]. Of course, if anyone knows any more general results, that would be great, too.)
