I think the proper Whitehead for maps says that if the cone of the map has trivial homotopy groups, then the map is a homotopy equivalence.
Edit: see also the correct version discussion of Whitehead theorem in the comments.
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I think the proper Whitehead for maps says that if the cone of the map has trivial homotopy groups, then the map is a homotopy equivalence. Edit: see the correct version in the comments. |
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I think the proper Whitehead for maps says that if the cone of the map has trivial homotopy groups, then the map is a homotopy equivalence. |
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