1) Let $C$ be a curve (of genues at least 2) with a $2:1$ morhpism on $\mathbb{P}^1$. Then $K_C$ has positive degree, hence it is ample. But you can check by Riemann-Hurwitz that $K_C$ is just the pullback of some multiple (depending on the genus) of the hyperplane section on $\mathbb{P}^1$. Moreover by Riemann-Roch you see that all sections of $K_C$ are pulled back by $\mathbb{P}^1$. It follows easily that the map given by sections of $K_C$ is just the map to $\mathbb{P}^1$ followed by a Veronese embedding; in particular it is not injective. So $K_C$ is ample but not very ample. Moreover by Serre duality you have $h^1(K_C) = h^0(\mathcal{O}) = 1$.
For a very ample line bundle with cohomology EDIT: removed nonsense
2) There is a bound depending only on the dimension of $X$ and the coefficients of the Hilbert polynomial of $L$; this is known as Matsusaka big theorem.
3) In general no, since $L$ will not give you a finite map. But it may happen that $L$ gives a finite map which is not an isomorphism; in this case you can then project to get a finite map to a projective space.
For instance take the double covering of $\mathbb{P}^2$ ramified over a sexitc, say this is $\pi \colon X \to \mathbb{P}^2$; then the line bundle $\pi^{*}(\mathcal{O}(1))$ gives the map $\pi$ itself, which is finite. But is it true that $\pi^{*}(\mathcal{O}(1))$ is ample, for instance by Kleiman's criterion. More generally the pullback of an ample line bundle under a finite map is still ample.

