By Fermat's little theorem we know that
$$b^{p-1}=1 \mod p$$
if p is prime and $\gcd(b,p)=1$. On the other hand, I was wondering whether
$$b^{n-1}=-1 \mod n$$
can occur at all?
Update: sorry, I meant n odd. Please excuse.
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By Fermat's little theorem we know that $$b^{p-1}=1 \mod p$$ if p is prime and $\gcd(b,p)=1$. On the other hand, I was wondering whether $$b^{n-1}=-1 \mod n$$ can occur at all? Update: sorry, I meant n odd. Please excuse. |
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By Fermat's little theorem we know that $$b^{p-1}=1 \mod p$$ if p is prime and $\gcd(b,p)=1$. On the other hand, I was wondering whether $$b^{n-1}=-1 \mod n$$ can occur at all? |
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b^(n-1)=-1 mod nBy Fermat's little theorem we know that $$b^{p-1}=1 mod p$$ if p is prime and $\gcd(b,p)=1$. On the other hand, I was wondering whether $$b^{n-1}=-1 mod n$$ can occur at all?
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