This is very standard, but perhaps buried in fancier things:
The Fourier transform $\hat{f}$ of $f$ is in $L^2$ for the weight $(1+|x|^2)^s$. Since $s>n/2$, the constant function $1$ is in that weighted $L^2$ space, so by Cauchy-Schwarz-Bunyakowsky, $\int_{\mathbb R^n} |\hat{f}| = \int |\hat{f}|\cdot 1\le |\hat{f}|s \hat{f}|_s \cdot |1|{-s} $, 1|_t$, where $t=-s$ [to avoid TeX bug?] and the subscript denotes the weight. Thus, $\hat{f}$ is in $L^1$. Thus, by Fourier inversion and Riemann-Lebesgue, $f=\hat{\hat{f}}$ is uniformly continuous and goes to $0$ at infinity.
[Dangit, TeX is broken?]

