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Post Made Community Wiki by 002
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The answer is no. Take countably many disjoint closed balls By the way, any Lebesgue measurable set E has a representative F with the property (*) $0<|F\cap B(x,r)|<|B(x,r)|$ for all $x\in\partial F$ and all $r>0$. The proof is straightforward: add the points x for which $|E\cap B(x,r)|=|B(x,r)|$ for some r, and throw out all points x such that $|E\cap B(x,r)|=0$ for some $r$. (See Prop. 3.1 in "Minimal surfaces and functions of bounded variation" by E. Giusti.) By virtue of (*) the set $F$ has the smallest (w.r.t inclusion) topological boundary among all representatives of $E$, so if this representative doesn't help you, nothing does. |
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