0
votes
0answers
111 views

Does Riemann's explicit formula imply invariance of the prime gaps distribution under a Fourier-like transform?

Loosely speaking, Riemann's explicit formula states that there exists a Fourier-type duality between the primes and the non trivial zeroes of the Riemann zeta function. Does this mean that the ...
2
votes
1answer
564 views

Generalization of Mertens' theorem

One classical Mertens' theorem tells us that $$\prod_{p \leq n} (1-\frac{1}{p})^{-1} = e^\gamma \log n + \mathcal{O}(1).$$ It is now very natural to ask, whether we have some good estimate to ...
19
votes
6answers
3k views

explicit formula for Riemann zeros counting function

I've often seen it stated (in vague terms) that there's a Fourier duality between the set of prime numbers and the set of nontrivial Riemann zeta zeros. Because there are various explicit formulae ...