Edit: As Dan Petersen pointed out, this question is a duplicate of a previous one. I would leave it for the moderators to decide if this should be closed. On the other hand, may be this should be left open on the merit of the excellent answers and comments (@Emerton: Thanks!).

I was trying to understand the following exact sequence (for $X := \mathbb{P}^n_k$, where $k$ is an algebraically closed field): $$0 \to \Omega_X \to \mathcal{O}_X(-1)^{n+1} \to \mathcal{O}_X \to 0$$ The explanation (as in the proof of Theorem II.8.13 of Hartshorne) is given by some algebraic formulae, which I am having trouble to digest. I was trying to see in more geometric terms what is going on, and was somewhat successful in the case of the surjection $\mathcal{O}_X(-1)^{n+1} \to \mathcal{O}_X$, namely: we can regard $\mathcal{O}_X(1)$ (respectively $\mathcal{O}_X(-1)$) as the normal bundle $\mathcal{N}$ of (respectively conormal bundle) of $X$ in $Z := \mathbb{P}^{n+1}_k$. Any global section of $\mathcal{O}_X(1)$ therefore induces a map (via evaluation) from $\mathcal{O}_X(-1)$ to $\mathcal{O}_X$. The above surjection comes from taking $n+1$-linearly independent global sections of $\mathcal{O}_X(1)$.

But I do not understand how to interpret the injection $\Omega_X \to \mathcal{O}_X(-1)^{n+1}$. How would someone 'naturally' come up with the algebraic formula?